New Quiz 26 Jan Welcome to your MLT- Professional Name: Email: Phone Number: [The tourniquet should be released:] as soon as blood fl ow is established. before needle removal from the arm. within 1 minute of its application. all of the above. None . [Which of the following will shift the O2 dissociation curve to the left?] Anemia Hyperthermia Hypercapnia Alkalosis None . [Which of the following would cause an increase in only the unconjugated bilirubin?] Hemolytic anemia Obstructive jaundice Hepatitis Hepatic cirrhosis None . [A hyaline mold recovered from a patient with AIDS produced rose-colored colonies with lavender centers on Sabouraud dextrose agar. Microscopic examination showed multiseptate macroconidia appearing as sickles or canoes. What is the most likely identification?] Fusarium spp. Wangiella spp. Exophiala spp. Phialophora spp. None . [Which of the following is the least hazardous area of an infant’s foot for capillary puncture?] Central area of the heel Lateral plantar heel surface Medial area of the arch Posterior curvature of the heel None . [Which CD4:CD8 ratio is most likely in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?] 2:1 3:1 2:3 1:2 None . [Which reagent is used in the Jendrassik–Grof method to solubilize unconjugated bilirubin?] 50% methanol N-butanol Caffeine Acetic acid None . [Large gram-positive bacilli (boxcar shaped) were recovered from a blood culture taken from a 70-year-old female diabetic patient. The following results were recorded: Aerobic growth = Neg Anaerobic growth = + Spores = Neg Motility = Neg Lecithinase = + Hemolysis = β (double zone) GLC (volatile acids) = acetic acid and butyric acid What is the most likely identification?] Clostridium perfringens Fusobacterium spp. Bacteroides spp. Clostridium sporogenes None . [Refer to the following scatterplot, histograms, and automated values on a 48-year-old man. What follow-up verification procedure is indicated before releasing the five-part WBC differential results? (fig)] Dilute WBCs 1:10; multiply × 10 Redraw the sample using a sodium citrate tube; multiply WBC × 1.11 Prepare buffy coat peripheral blood smears and perform a manual differential Warm specimen at 37°C for 15 minutes; rerun specimen None Comment . [What is the specimen of choice for the initial diagnosis of Pneumocystis jirovecii (carinii) in an immunocompromised patient, such as someone with AIDS?] Induced sputum Open-thorax lung biopsy CSF Urine None . [In which type of liver disease would you expect the greatest elevation of LD?] Toxic hepatitis Alcoholic hepatitis Cirrhosis Acute viral hepatitis None . [How can a false-negative PCR test caused by the presence of an inhibitor of the reaction in a patient’s sample be detected?] Using a positive control Using an internal control Performing each test in duplicate Performing serial dilutions of the sample None . [Culture on MTM media of a vaginal swab produced several colonies of gram-negative diplococci that were catalase and oxidase positive and Superoxol negative. Given the following carbohydrate reactions, select the most likely identification. Glucose = + Sucrose = Neg Lactose = + Maltose = + Fructose = Neg] Neisseria gonorrhoeae Neisseria sicca Neisseria flavescens Neisseria lactamica None . There is no statistically significant difference in precision Osmometer A demonstrates better precision that is statistically significant Osmometer B demonstrates better precision that is statistically significant Precision cannot be evaluated statistically when single measurements are made on samples None Comment . [Smooth gray colonies showing no hemolysis are recovered from an infected cat scratch on blood and chocolate agar but fail to grow on MacConkey agar. The organisms are gram-negative pleomorphic rods that are both catalase and oxidase positive and strongly indole positive. The most likely organism is:] Capnocytophaga spp. Pasteurella spp. Proteus spp. Pseudomonas spp. None . [Examination of a modified acid-fast stained fecal smear reveals round structures measuring approximately 8–10 μm, some of which are stained and some of which are not. They do not appear to show any internal morphology. The patient is symptomatic with diarrhea, and the cause may be:] Blastocystis hominis Polymorphonuclear leukocytes Cyclospora cayetanensis Large yeast cells None . [Which assay result is often approximately 25% below the expected level in pregnancies associated with Down syndrome?] Serum unconjugated estriol L/S ratio Amniotic fluid bilirubin Urinary chorionic gonadotropin None . [The following results were observed by using a tube coagulase test: Coagulase at Coagulase at 4 hours = + 18 hours = Neg Novobiocin = Hemolysis on blood Sensitive agar = β (16-mm zone) Mannitol salt plate = + DNase = + (acid production) What is the most probable identification?] Staphylococcus saprophyticus Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus aureus Staphylococcus hominis None . [Ascospores are formed by which yeast isolate?] Saccharomyces cerevisiae Candida albicans Cryptococcus neoformans All of these options None . [The diagnostic method most commonly used for the identification of Lyme disease is:] Serology Culture Gram stain Acid-fast stain None . [When should progesterone be measured when evaluating an adult female for anovulation?] At the onset of menses During the first 7 days of the menstrual cycle At the midcycle just after LH peaks At the end of the menstrual cycle None . [A blood agar plate inoculated with sputum from a patient with diabetes mellitus grew very few bacterial flora and a predominance of yeast. Given the following results, what is the most likely identification of the yeast isolate? CORNMEAL TWEEN 80 AGAR Germ tube = Neg Pseudohyphae = + Arthroconidia = Neg Blastoconidia = + (arranged along pseudohyphae) Chlamydospores = Neg] Candida tropicalis Candida kefyr (pseudotropicalis) Trichosporon cutaneum Geotrichum candidum None . [According to CLIA ’88, when performing and documenting linearity, the following samples are required:] A single calibrator and a zero set point One normal and one abnormal level Three levels of known concentration and a zero level A high and low control material None . [Features of secondary polycythemia include all of the following except:] Splenomegaly Decreased oxygen saturation Increased red cell mass Increased erythropoietin None . [Polymorphisms of the cytochrome p450 genes are important in identifying which condition?] Poor drug metabolism Risk for primary biliary cirrhosis Progression of hepatitis C to hepatic cirrhosis Parentage in cases where HLA results are inconclusive None . [The most rapid definitive diagnosis of a genital herpes simplex (HSV-2) infection in a 20-year-old man is made by which method?] Direct immunofluorescence test for viral antigen in vesicle fluid Titer of serum and seminal fluid for antibodies to herpes simplex Detection of antiherpes simplex in seminal fluid Cell culture of vesicle fluid None . [The determination of the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin is best accomplished by:] Polychromatic absorbance measurements of a whole-blood hemolysate Near infrared transcutaneous absorbance measurement Treatment of whole blood with alkaline dithionite prior to measuring absorbance Calculation using PO2 and total hemoglobin by direct spectrophotometry None . [The longest vein and the largest artery in the body in that order are:] cephalic and femoral. great saphenous and aorta. inferior vena cava and brachial. pulmonary and femoral. None . [Which analyte should be reported as a ratio using creatinine concentration as a reference?] Urinary microalbumin Urinary estriol Urinary sodium Urinary urea None . [Which of the following plates should be used in order to identify Haemophilus haemolyticus and Haemophilus parahaemolyticus? (fig 20)] Sheep blood agar and chocolate agar Horse blood agar and Mueller–Hinton agar with X and V strips Brain–heart infusion agar with sheep red cells added Chocolate agar and Mueller–Hinton agar with X factor added None . Time's up
